davywavy: (boris)
davywavy ([personal profile] davywavy) wrote2006-01-10 09:39 am

If this is Communism, where do I sign?

I've been debating over on [livejournal.com profile] raggedhalo's journal (again) about politics and economic theory. No surprises there; when one of the basic contentions being made is that the public sector is wildly corrupt and inefficient but it is better to raise taxes to cover the ensuing shortfall than to deal with the corruption and inefficiency you can expect my blood pressure to go up dramatically.
During the course of the debating, the old Communist Manifesto line about "From each according to his abilities, to each according to his needs" was trotted out as 'basic social contract'. On the face of it, the statement seems quite unexceptionable - but when you try and pin it down, it becomes quite a slippy concept indeed. You see the question I ask is: whose definition of the word 'need' are we going to accept? Certainly nobody I asked in the debate who supported the idea that we have a moral requirement to support the needs of others was prepared to define 'need' in absolute terms, instead prevaricating furiously whenever I really asked the question.
So I set out to look elsewhere for definitions of human needs. What are human needs, and who defines them?

The United Nations defines poverty thus: They state that any person lacking any two of the following list is, according to the UN, living in poverty: Access to adequate food, access to potable water, access to shelter, access to healthcare and access to education. I think there's a basic definition of 'need' there which we can all get behind, although a definition of what level of education (am I in poverty if I can't get to postgraduate education?) counts is still needed.
Looking closer to home, I checked out Oxfam and the Government's Social Exclusion unit.
Oxfam make a big deal about how 1 person in 4 in the UK lives in Poverty. This is a staggering number - more than 15 million people. The front page of their website makes quite a to-do about eradicating poverty. But what is "poverty" in those terms? Digging through their website, we find that Oxfam defines poverty as: "Poverty is measured here as below 60 per cent of contemporary median net disposable income in 2000/01."

Go back and read that again, and think about what it means.
It means that, according to Oxfam, who are leading a poverty eradication campaign, poverty itself can never be eradicated. Simple maths tells us that a proportion of the population will always live under a set point of the median income, because that's what the median means. In other words, if you're working for Oxfam in poverty reduction, then you've got a job for life. I'm sure it's only the cynic in me that suggests this thought might have crossed the mind of whoever set this somewhat arbitary standard of 'poverty'.

But what of the Social Exclusion unit? They too are trying to end poverty - but finding how they define 'poverty' is bloody hard. Anyone would think they didn't want you to know. Eventually, I tracked down some studies (carried out by the Joseph Rowntree foundation) they were basing their statistics of poverty on, and found some of their definitions. They, like the UN, set a list of criteria of what poverty 'is'. However, their criteria differ quite markedly from the UN; their list includes things like 'Not owning or having access to a car' and 'not owning your own home'.

What is most striking about both the Oxfam and SEU definitions of poverty (and thus 'need') is that I, personally, meet their criteria for poverty. When Oxfam or government statistics are trotted out to tell you how many people live in poverty in this country, their criteria are so broad that they catch me in there.
So, the next time an Oxfam worker collars you in the street and demands you set up a standing order to help them eradicate poverty in the UK because (adopts meaningful and portentious tone of voice) "One person in four lives in poverty", just remember what the true face of poverty in the UK looks like. It looks like mine, and I'm stuffing a jammy Wagon Wheel into it whilst I'm typing this.
As I'm in poverty, can I have a handout now, please?

These catch-all, broad definitions of 'need' and 'poverty' only serve to undermine the genuine problems of a very small proportion of the population and instead all they tell me is that when people say 'from each according to his needs', those 'needs' are a very moveable concept indeed, and the definitions given seem more designed to keep the people doing the defining in comfy jobs than to actually solve any genuine problems.
What strikes me even more is that the definitions are being defined completely arbitarily; I can make up any definition to 'need' and 'poverty' and then tell you that I want to do something about them - and most people, because they never consider the assumtions being made and the definitions being used, will go along quite happily, unaware that they're being bilked.
So; if socialists can make up their own definitions of 'need', then two can play at that game:
it strikes me that what most people need is a firm kick up the arse and, thanks to my kickboxing, I have the ability to give it to them. From each according to his abilities, to each according to his needs indeed.

So if you'd all line up and bend over, I've got some percussive rectal encouragement to get on with.
Why did nobody ever tell me before that Communism could be this much fun?

[identity profile] sesquipedality.livejournal.com 2006-01-10 12:23 pm (UTC)(link)
Actually it is possible to eradicate poverty by Oxfam's definition. all you need is a suitably tight distribution of wages below the median. For example, if every person in the country is paid the same wage, then no-one is poor by Oxfam's definition, since they are all on 100% of the median wage. (Median, incidentally for those that don't know, is the point at which 50% of the population are earning less and 50% more. Interestingly, Oxfam's definition is not actually socialist in the convential sense, since it is completely independent of the distribution of wages above the 50% point. Thus a society in which all men are paid 100x that of all women has no poverty by Oxfam's definition. (Men and women not picked to make a sexual politics point, just because there are slightly more than 50% women so thus all women would be earning 100% of the median wage in this situation.)

The essential point that Oxfam misses is that to a large extent poverty is not a relative phenomenon. In this country, barring cock ups, every citizen's basic needs are provided for. I am extremely dubious of any British citizen who claims to be living in poverty since to my mind poverty does not denote not having enough money to buy a pint of beer so much as not having the means to acquire enough food to live on (and a few other things). Even people who are 50,000 pounds in debt do not have these needs provided for, although they may be unwilling to admit that they need to sell their house in order to live at an acceptable standard. But that's another essential defining factor of poverty - you can't *choose* to live in poverty. If there's some way out that you're not taking because it seems unacceptable to you, then you aren't living in poverty.

[identity profile] davywavy.livejournal.com 2006-01-10 12:27 pm (UTC)(link)
Not quite so; their definition is based on median disposable income. As some people will need more basic utilities like water or energy, their utility bills will be higher and their disposable income will be lower.

As noted above, the only way to eradicate poverty within Oxfams definition is to divide up water, energy and either give them away free (and who will pay for it?), or divide them completely equally irrespective of individual requirements.

Beyond that, I agree. The number of people living in poverty isn't 15,000,000 in this country. That's a prfoundly dishonest statement, and it fucks me off.

[identity profile] silver-blue.livejournal.com 2006-01-10 01:05 pm (UTC)(link)
At what point is the income they are using on utilities etc disposable and at what point is it necessary? I have no doubt I use significantly more electricity and water than I need in order to survive, or even to exist comfortably. The differential is probably much larger in reality than it needs to be, as the individual needs for things like water are relatively similar. If you have chosen to live in a large house with leaky pipes and expensive heating bills are you then poorer than someone who has the same income as you but lives in a bedsit, has a five minute shower every day, and puts on an extra jumper? Or have you chosen to use disposable income on added utility costs? It's a stupid definition - people who have significantly greater wealth under that system would be classified as in poverty, while someone with a relatively low income, no major financial commitments (but significantly less long term financial security) is "comfortable".

While obviously circumstance can be a major factor, one of the biggest problems in terms of these campaigns to "eradicate poverty" is an almost total de-emphasising of personal responsibility. It's a consistent problem in this country I feel - poverty, debt, unemployment are always the fault of something else. Now on lots of occasions that might be the case, but equally on lots of occasions it is a case of people making a greater effort to sort things out for themselves. Problem is, by de-emphasising the personal responsibility there is significantly less motivation for people to do so - it's not their fault so why should they do anything to solve the problem?

[identity profile] davywavy.livejournal.com 2006-01-10 01:11 pm (UTC)(link)
That's basically my point: the definition they're using is stupid, and completely arbitary. And yes, personal responsibility is being removed fromt eh equation. It's the victim culture.

[identity profile] sesquipedality.livejournal.com 2006-01-10 01:10 pm (UTC)(link)
Frankly I've never understood why charities shoot themselves in the foot like that. It certainly makes me take Oxfam less seriously.