Question for girls
Jul. 18th, 2003 09:56 amWhy is it, when a girl discovers that her man has been two-timing her, that she is far more likely to attack the other woman than to dump/attack/lay in to the bloke - who is patently the more guilty party having lied to her and cheated on her?
This makes no sense to me.
This makes no sense to me.
no subject
Date: 2003-07-18 02:43 am (UTC)As for why? Well, I could tell you but I've a feeling it was rhetorical as much as anything else. SHout if you *do* want a sensible answer. :)